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Functioning of organisms: green plants
Q1. In the diagram of the flower section shown, label the parts a to h with the following words:
anther, sepal, receptacle, style, petal, ovary with ovules, filament, stigma.

Q2. The male reproductive organs or stamen of a flowering plant includes:
a) petals, sepals and a receptacle
b) the stigma, style and ovary
c) the anther and filament
Q3. Green plants are capable of making their own food in any of their green tissues by photosynthesis. Living organisms capable of doing this are referred to as:
a) heterotrophs
b) autotrophs
c) rhizomes
Q4. Plants are made from cells. Match the two specialised cell types (to the right) with the letter of their correct function:
a) form vessels which conduct simple sugars in sap.
b) carry out photosynthesis in leaves.
c) take up water and dissolved minerals from soil.
d) form vessels which conduct water and dissolved minerals.
e) allow various gases to move into and out of leaves.
Answer a, b, c, d or e:
Q5. The two classes of flowering plants, the most advanced and dominant forms of vegetation on Earth, are commonly referred to as:
a) monocots and dicots
b) prokaryotes and eukaryotes
c) auxins and gibberellins
Functioning of organisms: humans and other animals
Q6. How many bones would you expect to find in the skeleton of an average human adult?
a) 103
b) 206
c) 602
Q7. In this diagram of the human circulatory system, label the parts A to J with the following words:
aorta, right ventricle, left ventricle, pulmonary artery, left atrium, right atrium, pulmonary vein, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary circuit.

Q8. In this diagram of the generalised human cell, label the parts A to E with the following words:
nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondrion, cell membrane, ribosome.

Q9.The four main types of pathogen that cause disease in humans are bacteria, viruses, fungi and protoctista. Match the pathogens (to the right) to the types of disease they cause:
a) amoebic dysentery, sleeping sickness, malaria.
b) sore throats, tuberculosis, typhoid, cholera.
c) athlete's foot, ringworm, thrush.
d) colds, flu, measles, mumps, polio.
Answer a, b, c or d:
Continuity and change
Q10. Rearrange these structures in order of size, from smallest (a) to largest (d):
cell, gene, nucleus, chromosome.
Q11. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in the typical sex cells or gametes of a healthy human male or female?
a) 46
b) 72
c) 23
Ecosystems
Q12. Match the following living organisms with their correct position in a simple food chain:
a) primary consumer (herbivore).
b) producer.
c) secondary consumer (carnivore).
Answer a, b or c:
Materials and their properties
Q13. In this diagram of an atom, label the parts A to C with the following words:
electron, proton, neutron.
Q14. Neutrons and protons make up the nucleus of almost all atoms.
Q15. Identify each of the materials (to the right) as an element, a compound or a mixture.
Q16. Which of these statemets are true and which are false:
a) Physical changes are usually reversible.
b) Physical changes produce new substances.
c) Chemical changes are usually irreversible.
d) Chemical changes cause changes in the arrangement of the particles in a substance.
Q17. Look at these statements about the change of state of a material from a solid to a liquid:
a) The particles move faster.
b) The particles change shape.
c) The particles lose mass.
d) The particles move further apart.
e) The particles gain mass.
f) The particles have more energy.
g) The particles are more tightly bonded.
Q18. Exothermic reactions occur in chemical reactions when the creation of new bonds required less energy to form than the bonds that were broken. Endothermic reactions occur in chemical reactions when the creation of new bonds requires more energy than the bonds that were broken. For each of the following reactions, answer exothermic or endothermic.
a) Bicarbonate of soda and vinegar becomes cooler.
b) Plaster of Paris and water becomes hotter.
c) Nuclear fission.
d) Obtaining iron from iron ore.
Q19. You smell air freshener almost as soon as it has been sprayed in a room because:
a) the molecules of the air freshener travel faster than molecules of the air.
b) the molecules of the air freshener spread between the molecules of the air.
c) the molecules of the air freshener are smaller than the molecules of the air.
Electricity and magnetism
Q20. In this diagram of circuit symbols, label the components a to g with the following words:
motor, switch, cell, resistor, buzzer, bulb (or lamp), battery.
Q21. Under normal circumstances, which of the following materials are good electrical conductors, poor electrical conductors, or insulators?
a) copper
b) water
c) rubber
d) aluminium
e) gold
f) wood
g) skin
h) air
Energy
Q22. Energy exists in many forms. Match the forms of energy (to the right) to the letter of its best description:
a) the energy of vibrating objects.
b) the energy of position or height.
c) the energy of being stretched or compressed.
d) the energy of batteries.
e) the energy of hot objects.
f) the energy of electromagnetic radiation.
g) the energy of motion and movement.
h) the energy of food and fuels.
Answer a, b, c, d, e, f, g or h:
Q23. For every 100J of energy transferred to the filament lamp or bulb of a torch, 25J are changed or converted to light while 75J are changed or converted to heat. What is the efficiency of the torch? (Give your answer as a %.)
Q24. Identify the energy changes or conversions in the following diagram of a human at work by choosing from the options (to the right):
For each, answer a, b, c, d, e or f.
Forces and motion
Q25. Examples of contact forces include:
a) pushes and pulls
b) twists and turns
c) all of the above
Q26. In what units are forces measured?
a) kilograms (kg)
b) newtons (N)
c) pascals (Pa)
Q27. The mass of an object remains the same wherever it is in the Universe. Mass is measured in kg. The weight of an object changes depending on where it is in the Universe. Weight is measured in N. The force of gravity on the surface of the Earth is about 10 N/kg. How much would a person of mass 90 kg weigh? Give your answer as XX N.
Q28. The mass of an object remains the same wherever it is in the Universe. Mass is measured in kg. The weight of an object changes depending on where it is in the Universe. Weight is measured in N. The force of gravity on the surface of the Moon is about 1.6 N/kg. How much would a person of mass 90 kg weigh? Give your answer as XX N.
Light
Q29. In this diagram of the human eye, label the parts A to K with the following words:
eyelid, pupil, aqueous humour, lens, optic nerve, vitreous humour, retina, cornea, sclera (white of eye), iris, ciliary muscle.

Q30. Which of the following sources of light are primary and which are secondary?
a) a torch
b) the Moon
c) a burning candle
d) the Sun
Q31. The primary colours of light are:
a) red, blue and yellow
b) red, blue and green
c) red, green and yellow
Q32. Match the words (to the right) with the letter of their correct description:
a) blocks light and images completely.
b) allows light to pass and objects to be seen clearly.
c) allows light to pass but objects appear blurred.
Answer a, b or c:
Sound
Q33. In this diagram of the human ear, label the parts a to m:
ear drum, the stirrup, pinna, outer ear, the hammer, auditory nerve, ear canal, Eustachian tube, middle ear, cochlea, inner ear, semi-circular canals, the anvil.

Q34. Sounds generally travel faster in solids and liquids than in air.
The Earth and beyond
Q35. Match the following words to the correct letter of their best description:
a) chunks of ice and other material often seen with a tail.
b) natural satellites which orbit planets.
c) a star (ball of hot, glowing gas).
d) lumps of rock often referred to as minor planets.
e) small particles of dust and rock fragments.
f) rocky and gassy objects which orbit the Sun.
Answer a, b, c, d, e or f.
Q36. Mercury, being nearest to the Sun, is the hottest planet.
Q37. The Solar System formed about 4.6 billion years ago.
Q38. The Earth orbits the Sun once every:
a) blue Moon
b) 24 hours
c) 365.25 days
Q39. The Moon orbits the Earth about:
a) once every 24 hours
b) once a month
c) once a year
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